Can a loan be denied per ECOA because no one likes the purpose for which the money is being borrowed? I feel as long as the purpose does not identify/encroach upon one of the prohibitive bases, that it would be in compliance with regulations. And, that we have not loaned money for this purpose before.
Reason for adverse action would be sufficiently specific if stated, "We do not lend money for the purpose given as the reason for the loan.", would it not?
Personally, I feel we should stick to the creditworthiness of the customer and security offered, but I still need a clarification on the above.
Thank you in advance for needed advice.