Our loan customer purchased a truck.
This customer, historically has never engaged in a transaction quite like this one.
The customer has purchased vehicles in the past, relying on the bank for the majority of the loan amount, purchasing older model vehicles, even renewing these loans with cash out for medical expenses...
Then the customer purchased a newer vehicle, putting $9,000 down at the dealer and borrowing the rest (around $3,000). Looking at the invoice, I can see that the $9,000 was cash.
Talking to the lender, he informed me that the customer does not seem the type to save that amount of cash.
"But the $9,000 did not flow through the bank," is what I am being told when I ask if we should file a SAR.
Does the $$ need to come to the bank?
I don't think so since 31 CFR 103.18 says "any suspicious transaction that it believes is relevant to the possible
violation of any law or regulation but whose reporting is not required by this section."
But I'm not the BSA officer and may not be as well versed. Could one of you weigh in for me?