That's assuming they use the new SEC code. I know I am way out there with this questions, but....my peeps are parenoid. So, assume Bus. A sends in their payroll and, somehow, one of their employees is a trucker living in Canada. So, in originating the payroll, if I understand you, unless Bus. A uses the SEC code for IAT, the trans. will reject as it will not be coded correctly. That takes care of that scenario. Now lets assume Bus. A did some homework, uses the correct IAT code and, unbeknown to us, includes the trans along with the other payroll credits....I'm just trying to understand how we can catch these types of hiccups. Comments welcome!