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#151093 - 01/16/04 08:53 PM Adverse Action Notice
SouthernComfort Offline
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Joined: Aug 2001
Posts: 705
Southern Illinois, USA
Husband and wife apply jointly for a consumer loan. Wife signs application and a credit bureau is pulled. Husband never signs application. Is adverse action notice sent only to wife or should husband have one too?

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Lending Compliance
#151094 - 01/16/04 09:01 PM Re: Adverse Action Notice
rlcarey Offline
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rlcarey
Joined: Jul 2001
Posts: 83,371
Galveston, TX
Under the revised Reg B, how do you have a joint application without an affirmation of intent to apply from the husband?
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#151095 - 01/16/04 09:02 PM Re: Adverse Action Notice
Anonymous
Unregistered

If you pulled a credit report on the husband and information from that report caused you to deny the loan then you do need to provide the FCRA disclosure to him. Depending on the situation, if they both had the same credit history that led to the denial I think you could send one combined ECOA/FCRA notice and address it to both of them.

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#151096 - 01/16/04 09:23 PM Re: Adverse Action Notice
SouthernComfort Offline
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Joined: Aug 2001
Posts: 705
Southern Illinois, USA
Information on the husband was filled in on the application, but he never signed it. We did not pull a credit report on him.

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#151097 - 01/16/04 10:32 PM Re: Adverse Action Notice
rlcarey Offline
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rlcarey
Joined: Jul 2001
Posts: 83,371
Galveston, TX
Then I don't believe you had a joint application.
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The opinions expressed here should not be construed to be those of my employer: PPDocs.com

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#151098 - 01/16/04 11:17 PM Re: Adverse Action Notice
David Dickinson Offline
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David Dickinson
Joined: Nov 2000
Posts: 18,762
Central City, NE
Quote:

Then I don't believe you had a joint application.



I disagree. No where in Reg B does it say that someone must sign an application to apply. In fact, Reg B doesn't require applications in most cases - as you know.

First, the new rule is not mandatory until 4/15/04, so if dadams' bank is not using the "evidence of intent to apply" procedures yet, you have to throw the "you must sign to apply" rule out the window.

Second, even if they have implemented the new rule, this doesn't mean they didn't have an application from the husband. If the wife brings in an application, you have an application. If you need it signed, ask for it. But if you pull a credit report and decide to decline the husband, you have an application and you just declined it. [is this making sense? I'm doing a lot of double talk, I think.]

dadams stated they have an application. It says that a credit report is pulled. I'm assuming on both. My answer to the original question is: you have a joint application. You need to send a denial for both.
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David Dickinson
http://www.bankerscompliance.com

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#151099 - 01/18/04 12:34 AM Re: Adverse Action Notice
rlcarey Offline
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rlcarey
Joined: Jul 2001
Posts: 83,371
Galveston, TX
David, I don't really disagree with your statements, but they really do need to re-evaluate what constitutes an application from an applicant. For example, if I submitted an application with you named as a co-applicant, would they process it without your signature? If they won't then they have different application procedures for married verses unmarried applicants and would run afoul of Reg B. I agree there is no requirement for written applications and even no requirement for signatures, but if the husband was truely an active participant in this loan application - why the question?
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The opinions expressed here should not be construed to be those of my employer: PPDocs.com

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