I am in the process of training my staff on HMDA and just as I thought I had all my ducks in a row, along comes the confusion, once again, on Manufactured homes vs. 1-4 family. Specifics - Construction loan termed out reported as purchase on LAR. However, the home was a modular home purchased and built in Canada. It was delivered onsite in 4 pieces and put together, siding, inner walls, foundation, etc, etc. I have read all the regs and the comment 203.2(i) referring to HUD and still cannot come up with a clarification to this question. I am in conflict with my higher archy and would like help. My feeling is that the home is not "essentially ready for occupancy upon leaving the factory" therefore, it is not considered a manuf. home. Can anyone please give any other info besides what I have already read? Thank you for reading and hopefully taking the time to answer.
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**This is my opinion and mine only...use at your own discretion**