How hard and fast are examiners going to consider the fact we reported pricing information on the HMDA-LAR for a loan whose primary purpose is to purchase non-owner occupied investment property - making it technically not subject to Reg. Z? Does our LAR reporting for pricing need to reflect how the loan was disclosed (consumer or business)? The loan is secured by the borrower's primary residence, the loan was treated as consumer purpose, received all the pertinent consumer disclosures, incuding right to rescind.
I don't want to be dinged in a HMDA exam because Reg. Z "deems" credit extended to acquire, improve, or maintain rental property that is not owner-occupied to be business purpose (and therefore not subject to Reg.Z?)?
It used to be safe to error on the side of caution, giving consumer disclosures, but we didn't have the HMDA pricing to consider. It's customary for our mortgage department to treat these a consumer deals when secured by a primary residence. I am really scratching my head on this one...