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#128948 - 11/06/03 05:28 PM Fair Lending Question
Ski Offline
Platinum Poster
Joined: May 2003
Posts: 639
South Louisiana
The bank is looking to offer to make some loans to people who will now have to purchase property they were previously rent/leasing in one specific area of our market. In order to make it more attractive for these people to come in and apply, management is thinking about foregoing the normal $150.00 appraisal fee (always paid up front at application), until a positive credit decision is rendered (obviously subject to appraisal).

(Note: At this bank, all appraisals are done in-house by non-certified/licensed "insiders" unless the loan amount is covered by FIRREA)

The majority of people who would be applying are non-minority, middle to upper income individuals.

Since this appears to be a "specific marketing" issue, might it have a disparate impact?

Any input is appreciated.

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Lending Compliance
#128949 - 11/06/03 06:00 PM Re: Fair Lending Question
Dan Persfull Offline
10K Club
Dan Persfull
Joined: Aug 2002
Posts: 47,532
Bloomington, IN
How do you justify waiving this fee for these applicants and not other applicants for the same or similar type loan in a different market area?
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The opinions expressed are mine and they are not to be taken as legal advice.

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