I wanted to make sure I was on the right track for HMDA on the following situation. We did a loan in the name of a Trust secured by a dwelling in ’07. We are now refinancing the loan, but the trust dissolved and the borrower will be an individual name. The ownership changed back in September from the Trust to the individual, so it will not be part of the loan transaction. Am I right to assume that this loan is not HMDA since it is not to the same borrower (Trust to Individual), refinance? Also, since ownership changed prior to our loan then it will not be a purchase? Also, the individual was a trustee on the Trust, but that does not make a difference correct?