Hello BOL Community,
I am looking for some support of my view on a topic that is being discussed at my bank. Currently my lenders assistants are hesitant to write the below notes because they believe that the borrower is required to be able to completely satisfy the balloon upon maturity.
3 year Balloon Amortized at 15 years
5 year Balloon Amortized at 15 years
While these loans are sometimes HPML's, they are still allowed provided that we follow the escrow, income analysis, and other rulse provided under TIL. The debate at my bank comes about when my lenders assitants tell me that they cannot do these loans unless the client can cashflow to completely pay off the balloon at maturity. I have searched high and low in Reg Z and the commentary and cannot find anything to support this opinion.
I have seen the
CFPB Proposal for changes to HOEPA , but these are only proposals right now. I have also reviewed the
Staff Commentary to Reg Z 34(a)(4) that referenced repayment ability, but again, cash flow for the balloon payment is never mentioned.
While I understand that HPML loans are generally not preferred,
and I agree, this is not the argument. The argument is whether or not law/regulation prohibits the 3/15 or 5/15 unless we can prove ability to satisfy the balloon.
Again, I don't like these loans either and am a big fan of prudent underwriting standards but I just need to know if I am missing something in the regs that specifically prohibits 3/15 and 5/15 loans.
If I am wrong, I would absolutely appreciate a reference.
Let's hear it!