Customer borrows funds to refi commercial building. A portion of the proceeds are put into an account to pay loan collar fees. Customer would like to take the funds in this account and invest, pledging the investments. All funds were disbursed under a single note. It sounds like this portion of the funds would result in a purpose loan. Is the max 50% LTV for the entire note or just the portion of funds used to buy stock? For example, (and these are not the real numbers)...Building refi $2,000,000 (1.5MM building, $500M to fund loan collar fees). Current total LTV 66% ($500M account also pledged to the loan). Would like to invest the $500M. Is the total LTV on the $2MM required to be at 50%? Or just on the $500M? So the borrower could invest $250M of it?

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