I think I'm confusing myself with some yield spread premium threads.
Bank originates and sells consumer mortgates on secondary market to Investor. Investor buys a mortgage for 102% of face amount shortly after closing. Should the 2% Bank earnings be included in the borrower's finance charge and/or APR or is the mortgage sale outside the scope of 1026.4?
Thanks!
Last edited by Wonderofitall; 07/10/13 03:14 PM.
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