Consider an applicant whose credit report shows a charge card account, such as AMEX, where the applicant has to pay the full balance monthly.

How would you calculate a monthly debt-to-income ratio using a one-time payment? Would you use the 5% or $10 rule?

What are others currently doing with this type of debt?

I do not like credit cards for which a minimum monthly payment is not specified on the credit report...there, that is off my chest...not that there is anything that can be done about it.
In any case, I have been using the 5% or minimum $10 rule for any revolving account for which a monthly payment does not appear on the credit report. I am curious to know how others treat this matter, and if there have ever been any questions from secondary market underwriters about this issue. Thank you.

Credit cards like AMEX which reflect balance monthly are coded as 30 day charge in our system and payment not calculated. The balance/payment amount due would need to be verified in reserves/assets as balance is payable montly. Sometimes there are options for minimum payment in which a copy of the charge statement would verify this.