I checked with our regulator (the FDIC) & they were in agreement with you. I also agree it makes better sense to include the primary or joint designation as I believe it would be less confusing overall (except for the fact that the consumer with the bankruptcy would unquestionably know).
But when I read the cite & the commentary [12 CFR 202.9(b)(2) see below], I read regardless of who has the lack of creditworthiness, I must be specific as to the reason, not necessarily the individual.
"Statement of specific reasons.
The statement of reasons for adverse action required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section must be specific and indicate the principal reason(s) for the adverse action. Statements that the adverse action was based on the creditor’s internal standards or policies or that the applicant, joint applicant, or similar party failed to achieve a qualifying score on the creditor’s credit scoring system are insufficient."
"Section 202.9(b)(2), adopted as proposed, clarifies that whether a creditor's denial of credit is based on the creditworthiness of the applicant, a joint applicant, or guarantor, the reasons for adverse action must be specific ."
I'm still new to compliance & still straining at gnats. Thanks for helping me choke them down.
_________________________
"Remember no man is a failure who has friends." - Clarence (the Angel) Oddbody - It's a Wonderful Life