We are doing a loan for a borrower who remarried after her first husband passed away. Her current husband is not a owner of the real estate we are using for collateral. He is signing the note, does he need to sign the mortgage as well? I believe he does, but wanted some verification.

I believe if it is his primary residence he needs to sign.

If he has no ownership in the property then why would he need to sign the mortgage?

If he does it would strictly be a state law issue.

I know in Michigan, if it is his primary residence, then he has to sign. If it is not, then he is not required. Similar to dower rights for a wife.

There is no such requirement in IN. As I said if they are required to sign then it's a matter of state law.