On a loan with multiple properties as collateral where one is a purchase, are we required to show the value of all properties securing the loan or just the 'sale price' of the property being purchased? Is there an interpretation to support the statement "Only the Sale Price (vs Appraised Value of all properties) is disclosed since that is the requirement for a purchase." ?
37(a)(7) Sale price.
1. Estimated property value. In transactions where there is no seller, such as in a refinancing, § 1026.37(a)(7)(ii) requires the creditor to disclose the estimated value of the property identified in § 1026.37(a)(6) at the time the disclosure is issued to the consumer. The creditor may use the estimate provided by the consumer at application, or if it has performed its own estimate of the property value by the time the disclosure is provided to the consumer, use that estimate. If the creditor has obtained any appraisals or valuations of the property for the application at the time the disclosure is issued to the consumer, the value determined by the appraisal or valuation to be used during underwriting for the application is disclosed as the estimated property value. If the creditor has obtained multiple appraisals or valuations and has not yet determined which one will be used during underwriting, it may disclose the value from any appraisal or valuation it reasonably believes it may use in underwriting the transaction. In a transaction that involves a seller, if the sale price is not yet known, the creditor complies with § 1026.37(a)(7) if it discloses the estimated value of the property that it used as the basis for the disclosures in the Loan Estimate.