Just to piggyback, what if the borrower did not give their intent to proceed, but the bank ordered an appraisal and the appraisal was completed. If the bank reused that appraisal, could they pass the fee for the appraisal on to a new borrower purchasing the property?
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"Tact is telling someone to go to [censored] in such a way, they look forward to the trip" Winston Churchill