I am going blank and would like some input please. I have a loan that we took the customers investment property that they own free and clear to get cash out ($75,000) to go and purchase a new residence for her primary residence. Ok, with us taking the investment property as collateral I reported on that property, and as purpose I reported a 1, home purchase(because she is going to purchase a primary residence with her cash out), and reported occupancy as a 1, owner occupied.
But that seems weird too me, because I am reporting the collateral we have, which is an investment property of hers that she owns, but then as purpose and occupancy I am reporting that it's a home purchase because she is going to purchase a home and then occupancy as owner occupied, because whatever she purchases it will be her home.
Is this correct? I would appreciate any feedback please. Thanks.