If a loan is secured by a non-dwelling as the primary collateral and a residential dwelling as an abundance of caution, is that HMDA reportable? If yes, does your answer change is the proceeds for the loan are not related to a consumer purpose?
Fair Warning: I am fairly new to banking and commercial/consumer lending, so I apologize in advance if my questions don't make complete sense. My background is with non-bank lenders that were 100% residential mortgage shops, so these commercial/consumer nuances are throwing me for a loop.