If a borrower is getting a loan, but he is not going to occupy the property full time--though his spouse and family will, is this considered a second home or a primary residence?

Thank you in advance.

In what context, as in what are you trying to figure out?

We are trying to determine if a the loan will be for a primary or secondary residence if the borrower only plans to occupy the property part time since he plans to live in an apartment out of state for the other part of the year for work. His spouse is not on the loan but will occupy the property, and this is a purchase.

Well, for HMDA it would be a principal residence based on comment 3 to 1003.4(a)(6).

I agree with Adam, this is primary. You said it yourself, he will rent an apartment out of state for work purposes but he and his family will reside at the property being purchased. He'll get his mail there and use it as his home state for taxes and voting, etc.

Thank you everyone!