I need some direction here.

Dad buys vehicle. Doesn't make payments. We contact-- he says vehicle was actually for son, son should be making payments. Loan is delinquent....but has now been brought current by dad.

We have no information on son. Loan is not in default, so no loss situation at this point in time.

I am having a hard time supporting a SAR filing on this. What would the benefit to law enforcement be? There is no loss at this time. Do I wait until this actually goes into repo status?

I don't see an immediate connection to a SAR in this scenario, even if the loan does go to repo. There's nothing that suggests fraud ; lots of parents (not mine) do similar things for their kids.

I agree with John as I don't see anything on the surface that would trigger a SAR. Was there suspected loan fraud involved?

I didn't notice the subject line for this thread until now. I think it's a real stretch to characterize the transaction described as involving a "straw purchase." If there's other information concerning the auto or the loan that leads you down that path, okay. But as described here, this seems quite innocent.

Do you know how many SAR's would have to be filed if a loan went into default?

Why would a SAR need to be filed if the loan went into default? Do you suspect loan fraud?