Husband and wife had a mortgage with us and began divorce proceedings in 2017. Payments stopped being made in November of 2017, causing the loan to become significantly delinquent. Property was sold and note/mortgage paid off 03/30/2018.
Wife is now disputing this delinquency on her credit report. She has provided us with a partial marital settlement agreement dated 03/02/2018 which states:
“The real estate located at ______ and legally described as set forth in Attachment A shall be sold forthwith. The parties shall continue to list the property for sale until the property is sold…The Husband shall pay and be responsible for the monthly mortgage payment owing to [Bank], consisting of principal and interest payments, real estate taxes and liability insurance until the date of sale. Such payments shall be paid on or prior to the date due by the lender, County and insurance company.”
Wife is disputing the delinquency on her credit report because of this settlement agreement. My gut response is that she still was liable with us for the debt, regardless. Nothing changed in their agreement with us. In addition, the settlement agreement wasn’t filed until well after the loan became delinquent. Any thoughts on the correct course of action under FCRA here? Should we be removing this delinquency from her credit report since the court (sort of) said she wasn't liable?