I have a loan that was used to purchase a fully commercial use property - no residences. The plan of the new owner is to convert the second floor space into 3 apartments while the first floor will remain commercial use.
I know at one point In one of the threads here, I had read it is the use of the property at the time it is purchased. I think the example used was that if someone is purchasing an old house not fit to live in, you aren't really buying a residence because no one can live in it.
But in another thread, someone else said reporting should be based on the intended use.
Help, please.
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