We have a situtation where a son mailed his ATM card and PIN to his father who supposedly lives in Missouri. The son found out that the father moved to Florida and somehow the card appeared to have been used and there are charges totalling $1,500. Don't know why the son had to mail the card nor why the son did not know his father had moved? In any event, the son is wanting his $1,500 back. I found a similar question in the gurus section and it appears that this would be considered unauthorized use since it appears the card was not used by the father. Would that be correct? Thank you.

Unless you are able to prove that your cardholder was complicit somehow in these transactions, or benefited from them (both unlikely, in my view), I think your belief they are unauthorized is correct.

I also think you would be very well justified in refusing to issue this guy another card. What he did was clearly negligent.

I agree with John. We had this same scenario except that it was an international mailing. We paid the claim but not until after I reviewed the claim in an audit. It was initially denied, but not for, IMHO, a valid reason.