All, I'm somewhat ignorant on this topic. I did attend a Compliance seminar which discussed the ongoing litigation surrounding the MasterCard/VISA foreign exchange fee, and I also believe many banks are involved in a NY class action regarding this topic. I've recently been told that MC is going to impose its 1% fee directly to our bank rather than customers (my guess is to insulate itself), so in reaction we are contemplating passing this fee contractually through our CMA. However, some are also suggesting charging a 3% fee... is this a huge area of exposure given the unresolved actions, even if it is properly disclosed?
Thanks in advance for any guidance!