I know we discussed this in the past, but a search is not bringing it up.
If an employer cashes payroll checks, and there may be one or two over $1,000.00 - does this make him a check casher with registration requirements.
I always said no, but I seem to remember someone had an argument with it.
Please let me have your comments.
Thanks.

I have seen threads on this topic before and believe that the consensus is NO.

The logical answer is "No", but the OCC recently said "Yes" in the Telephone seminar held back in March.

The problem is that "check cashing" needs to be better defined to EXCLUDE someone who cashes a check that they themselves have issued.