I did a loan to purchase a house, secured by new residence-term is one year and will be paid off from sale of prior residence. Is this HMDA reportable

Yes, it will be paid from the sale of an asset, not permanent financing.

I agree because it also does not meet the definition of a bridge loan.

It sounds like a bridge loan to me. Do you define temporary financing in your loan policy? Doing so will allow you to exclude the loan for HMDA. Temporary is usually construction and bride. Best to define these in policy to avoid confustion. Also helps during the HMDA review by the regulators.

How is this a bridge loan? The loan is not bridging any gap of funds to obtain permanent financing.

Here's another recent discussion.