Ok, the more I think about this, the more I am beating my head on my desk. This is regarding the the occupnacy status being based on the "owner."
If a business entity has a commerical loan secured by a residential dwelling, would I be correct in assuming that in most cases, the occupancy status would be a 2-non-owner occupied? As, the owner would be the business entity, and most businesses do not operate out of a residential structure. At least in NY. Any opinions would be apprecriated.