Daughter and son-in-law have moved in with her elderly mother. A new loan is being done in which the mother and son-in-law will be signed on the note. It is the son-in-law's principal dwelling, however he has no ownership interest in the property. Should he get a ROR notice?

Thanks

My understanding is that where the consumer's principal residence will be subject to a security interest (mortgage, deed, etc.) ROR applies.

Purchase or construction loans are exempt.

Also, a consumer does not have to be a signer on the promissory note is receive ROR.

1) Who owns the house?
2) Is it their principal residence?
3) Do they sign the security instrument (mortgage or deed,etc.)?

Hope this helps.

For the purpose of the ROR the SIL does meet the definition of a consumer since he has no ownership interest. The ROR does not apply to the SIL.

I have a little different twist on who has to given the ROR notice: a brother and sister own the property jointly, but only the brother lives in it. The brother is our sole borrower, although the sister will also sign the DOT. Does the sister have ROR as owner, even though it's not her primary dwelling? I believe she does not, but want to be sure... thanks!

You are correct, she does not. It is not her primary residence.

Also from my previous post:

For the purpose of the ROR the SIL does meet the definition of a consumer

it should read:

For the purpose of the ROR the SIL does NOT meet the definition of a consume