So, if Customer A disputes a credit and after investigation we discover that the credit is a valid pre-authorized, reoccurring debit from Customer B's account with us, the resolution would be that it isn't an error? Apparently, the rest of the story is that A is owner financing a home to B and the EFT is for the payments. A wants to foreclose on B and wants to stop receiving the payments, which have been sporadic due to insufficient funds. We did not know this when the preauthorization was first given, however, my opinion is that we don't want to get involved by dishonoring a valid EFT authorization. Am I right?
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My opinions are not necessarily the opinions of my employer.