I don't deal with subpoenas/the RFPA very often so I just want to make sure I'm not overthinking this. We received a subpoena related to a bankruptcy case being held in a US bankruptcy court. This case is between a bank (plaintiff) and our customer (defendant). The subpoena is for producing documents relating to our customer to be delivered to the plaintiff's attorney and the subpoena is signed by the plaintiff's attorney (not the court). RFPA would still apply to this subpoena because the attorney is considered an "officer" of the court, correct?

The RFPA cover the release of information to the US government - this appears to be a private action.