Good Morning:
I have a situation where our APR increased by .25% for a regular transaction between LE & CD due to a change in the interest rate, which would normally be a violation. However, the loan amount also decreased significantly between the two transactions, so the finance charge is actually lower on the CD. So, do I still have a violation for the APR increase per 1026.22(a)(4)? The more I've been reading, the more I'm turning around in circles!
Thanks,
R. Shackleford