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#2242059 - 09/03/20 08:07 PM Occupancy Code Question
Saintsfan Offline
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We've made 2 loans to same Borrower. Loan to purchase a new primary residence is secured by the home being purchased with occupancy code 1. A separate loan closed the same day was made for the down payment on the new home, but this loan is secured by the Borrower's existing home. This separate loan has a short term but it will be paid in full with proceeds from sale of the existing home. Should we use occupancy code 3 for this short term loan?

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#2242060 - 09/03/20 08:52 PM Re: Occupancy Code Question Saintsfan
rlcarey Online
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rlcarey
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Galveston, TX
What is happening to the existing home? Second home, renting it?
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#2242061 - 09/03/20 08:58 PM Re: Occupancy Code Question Saintsfan
Saintsfan Offline
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They are selling the existing home and will use proceeds to pay off the loan for down payment.

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#2242062 - 09/03/20 09:02 PM Re: Occupancy Code Question Saintsfan
rlcarey Online
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rlcarey
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Galveston, TX
I don't think code 3 is appropriate, would it not be 2?

a. For purchased loans, use Code 1 unless the loan documents or application indicate that the property will not be owner-occupied as a principal residence.

b. Use Code 2 for second homes or vacation homes, as well as for rental properties.

c. Use Code 3 if the property to which the loan relates is a multifamily dwelling; is not located in an MSA; or is located in an MSA or an MD in which your institution has neither a home nor a branch office. Alternatively, at your institution's option, you may report the actual occupancy status, using Code 1 or 2 as applicable.
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#2242069 - 09/03/20 11:05 PM Re: Occupancy Code Question rlcarey
Saintsfan Offline
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Code 2 does make sense. We are having a bit of a disagreement because we've been advised to use Code 3 for this particular scenario. Thanks for sharing your opinion.

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#2242078 - 09/04/20 04:43 PM Re: Occupancy Code Question Saintsfan
Inherent_Risk Offline
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I think those are the old definitions for occupancy. Code 2 is now just for second homes. Code 3 is labeled investment, but it's defined essentially as not 1 or 2. "For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(6), a property is an investment property if the borrower does not, or the applicant will not, occupy the property."

I think both would be code 1 if they're currently living at one house and will be living at the other house they are buying. Would be different if they have already moved out.

Principal residence. Section 1003.4(a)(6) requires a financial institution to identify whether the property to which the covered loan or application relates is or will be used as a residence that the applicant or borrower physically occupies and uses, or will occupy and use, as his or her principal residence. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(6), an applicant or borrower can have only one principal residence at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal residence. However, if an applicant or borrower buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the applicant's or borrower's principal residence within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal residence for purposes of applying this definition to a particular transaction.

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#2242087 - 09/04/20 06:57 PM Re: Occupancy Code Question Saintsfan
rlcarey Online
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rlcarey
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Galveston, TX
Oh IR - you are absolutely correct. Sorry for the wrong citation.
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