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#851642 - 11/08/07 06:46 PM Another Reg E dispute question
VA-CSR Offline
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VA-CSR
Joined: Feb 2003
Posts: 104
Northern Neck of Virginia
I'm probably overthinking this, but I need to be sure I'm understanding this correctly. So here's my scenario:

Customer gives us verbal notice that they did not authorize a specific transaction. We tell customer that we will investigate, but that we require written notice (as stated in our Reg E disclosure) within 10 days. We do not receive written notice from the customer.

Am I correct that we do not have to give provisional credit, but that we do have to investigate the claim and, if we decide that it is fraudulent, give final credit with 45 days? BUT, if we are not able to determine if the transaction was fraudulent (say it was a PIN based transaction at a merchant that the customer has been to in the past) can we decline credit because the customer did not give us written notice?

Thanks for any help you can give!
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"These things really happened. We changed the world, then we [blew] the end game." Charlie Wilson

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#851913 - 11/08/07 10:16 PM Re: Another Reg E dispute question VA-CSR
John Burnett Offline
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John Burnett
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Cape Cod
The customer's failure to provide written confirmation of the oral claim ONLY affects the provisional credit requirement. It's irrelevant for all other Section 205.11 considerations.

You must decide whether, based on all of the information available to you, whether or not the transaction in question was authorized.
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#852290 - 11/09/07 05:04 PM Re: Another Reg E dispute question John Burnett
VA-CSR Offline
100 Club
VA-CSR
Joined: Feb 2003
Posts: 104
Northern Neck of Virginia
Thanks John. I just needed confirmation for my argument.
_________________________
"These things really happened. We changed the world, then we [blew] the end game." Charlie Wilson

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#852361 - 11/09/07 05:52 PM Re: Another Reg E dispute question VA-CSR
VA-CSR Offline
100 Club
VA-CSR
Joined: Feb 2003
Posts: 104
Northern Neck of Virginia
I think I should clarify that in my example above the claim wouldn't be denied simply for the reason that the customer did not provide written notice. The denial would be because our investigation shows no evidence that the transaction was fraudulent. With a written statement, the fact that the customer said it was not authorized AND was willing to sign a WSUPP to that effect would likely cause us to pay the claim.

I read back over my original post and thought it was a bit confusing!
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"These things really happened. We changed the world, then we [blew] the end game." Charlie Wilson

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