Is whether OECD country or not a factor in determining the customer's BSA/AML risk? If so, what is the reason for OECD country to be reasonable criteria for risk assesment? I have been looking for the answer to this. Thank you.

The OECD isn't a governing or regulatory body. I don't know know that simple membership tells me much about their Anti-Money Laundering laws, their bank regulatory regimes, and so on. The OECD does publish information that I bring in to my country risk assessment, but OECD membership doesn't do anything for me.