I am looking at a loan made so the borrowers could buy into a Senior Aparment complex which is now their primary residence. The collateral is their previous residence which they are attempting to sell. The loan is coded as an owner occupied, multi-family purchase, showing no lien. That doesn't seem right, but after looking at if I've decided I am only confusing myself so I'm hoping for some more experienced opinions.
For what it's worth the home used for collateral is owned by their trust.
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"The mountains are calling and I must go." - John Muir