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#2015612 - 05/21/15 09:39 PM Investment property always business purpose?
kake Offline
Member
Joined: Jun 2011
Posts: 82
Oregon
Customer is not able to sell his house for what he would like. Customer is moving in with a friend. He is wanting to refinance his old house and convert to a rental. Loan will be under the individuals name. Customer does not have any other rentals and is not in the business of managing rentals. My take is if he is refinancing a personal loan and he is not in the rental business that this is a consumer loan. The one item that is still bothering me is the non-owner occupied rental exemption. Business or Consumer purpose? Exempt from RESPA?

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Lending Compliance
#2015648 - 05/22/15 12:32 PM Re: Investment property always business purpose? kake
Carolina Blue Offline
Platinum Poster
Carolina Blue
Joined: Jul 2005
Posts: 961
Lost in a regulatory fog
Look to the commentary of Reg.Z Section .3(a) Number 4. It gives an automatic business exemption if the loan is to acquire, improve, or maintain a non-owner occupied rental. I would consider this loan to maintain a non-owner occupied rental and therefore business purpose.

If you want to be conservative and treat as a consumer loan then there is no harm in giving Reg.Z and REPSA disclosures unless you're trying to close quickly.

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#2015651 - 05/22/15 12:51 PM Re: Investment property always business purpose? kake
Kathleen O. Blanchard Offline

10K Club
Kathleen O. Blanchard
Joined: Dec 2000
Posts: 21,293
A downside to not treating as business purpose is that the bank will have a rental dependent loan in portfolio that is not correctly underwritten and risk rated for the business purpose.
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