This is probably a stupid question but I must admit I am a little confused! Here's the scenario: A borrower plans to purchase a mobile home and affix it to their land. We are only financing the purchase of the mobile home. The land is owned free and clear by the borrower. Would right of rescission still apply? I think we are confusing the land as being part of his principal residence but to me that should not be the case since the borrower does not own the mobile home. I probably answered my own stupid question but could I please get some verification. Thanks!
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