How can a solicitation advertise a "0% APR on balance transfers" if there is a 3% balance transfer fee? Why would a transfer fee not be considered a finance charge?
Re: 0% APR on balance transfers? - 12/10/0309:48 PM
Assuming this is open-end credit under Reg Z, then the advertised APR is based on the annualized periodic rate, without regard to what fees are charged.