Posted By: Reed
quick HMDA question - 01/09/06 08:24 PM
If a preapproval is requested and given on a purchase of a second home, is that a code 1? in other words, does occupancy status effect the preapproval category?
Thanks
Posted By: Dan Persfull
Re: quick HMDA question - 01/09/06 08:39 PM
Pre-approval rules apply to all home purchase transactions, I know of no distinctions made between owner or non-owner occupied property for these rules.
Posted By: bgehres
Re: quick HMDA question - 01/09/06 08:39 PM
I don't think occupancy effects whether its a preapproval, as long as you have an established program. We have people buying rental properties this way and have been using code 1 for preapproval.
Posted By: Reed
Re: quick HMDA question - 01/09/06 08:48 PM
Ok, thanks to you both. Thought so, checked GIR, just wasn't positive.