The history page does show projected and actual. It is the anticipated last 2 months that are the problem. The first 10 months show actual payments to and from the acct. However, the anticipated payments are based on the 'billing date'. Even though the customer will make payments in the last 2 months, because the billing date shows one of those payments as already paid, no payment will be anticipated.
For example, last 2 pmts are Mar & April. Pmt due date is 3-1. The customer pays the 3-1 bill on 2-27. The processor will anticipate no pmt for March. This makes the ending bal on the history short one payment, even though the customer makes 12 payments.
It doesn't make sense to me to populate actual pmts for 10 months, but switch gears and populate the last 2 pmts based on the 'date paid to'. It shouldn't matter what billing date the last 2 payments would satisfy - just as it doesn't matter what billing dates the first 10 months payments satisfy.
Leaving out a payment on the history makes the customer pay a shortage he shouldn't be paying, since the shortage/surplus is calculated based on the ending balance on the history.
Opinions are my own and not of my employer.