According to the Matrix, a mobile home without land would still require an appraisal disclosure. Is this correct? I thought without the land, it was treated like an auto using the book value and title of the mobile home. Am I wrong and if so, where do I learn more about it? thanks for your help.
Every time I look at one thing, a dozen more questions pop up.
Never mind, I found my own answer. In the reg it states to give an appraisal.
I am assuming in the situation where a "bookvalue" is used, we would be required to give that figure since an actual appraiser did not go to the location of the collateral.
[This message has been edited by Maria (edited 10-17-2001).]