Lets assume Bill calls me on his personal cell about my numerous NSFs and past due loan payment. "This can't be" I say, "I know I have lots of money in the bank. I will look into it and call you back." Which I do.
Bill is a friendly type and we strike up a bit of a conversation and I believe Bill is my new friendly banker. When I call him, this time or 6 months from now because I saved his number, I mention to him I lost my debit card and someone took $50 from my account. Actually, I left him a voice mail. I didn't know Bill was fired from the bank nor that he had zero interest in helping the bank or me.
As it happens $3000 was taken from my account after I made that call. But, did I notify "the bank?" "The bank" conducted official business with me this way before? Can you defend a "No" answer based on Reg E's OSC:
"A financial institution is considered to have received notice for purposes of limiting the consumer's liability if notice is given in a reasonable manner, even if the consumer notifies the institution but uses an address or telephone number other than the one specified by the institution."
Employees will tend to use their phones for business, but texting one's boss with a question or a request for a day off is not calling customers about official business. There is risk here and the chance that customers not seeing the bank on caller ID will then have to verify who called and why because that number isn't even close to the banks.
Another hypothetical, Bill wants a form from me. I scan it and send it with my phone, to Bills. The bank and I are later involved in a federal court case and the rules of evidence require e-records to be submitted into evidence. The problem is, nobody other than Bill knew the bank had that record and it was a key item.
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AndyZ CRCM
My opinions are not necessarily my employers.
R+R-R=R+R
Rules and Regs minus Relationships equals Resentment and Rebellion. John Maxwell