A converstation revolved around mortgages and mortage tax at a recent seminar I attended. It also came up with a situation at my bank.
If you have a non-revolving loan for $100,000 secured by a real Estate Mortgage in Oklahoma and the loan pays down to $25,000: the customer comes in to refinance and borrow funds back to the original $100,000. I have always been under the assumption that the $75,000 is considered new money and mortgage tax must be paid again for the proper period of time.
In one case, an adddtional loan was granted for the $75,000 (cross-pledged by language in the collateral description) and the origianl mortgage was relied upon and still considered a first lien. No new mortgage or modification was filed.
Some, that I have talked to, beleive that if you have a mortgage for $100,000 you can continue to advance back up and cross-pledge new loans without modfying and paying mortage tax on funds "re-advanced". I thought this was only allowable on revolving lines described within the mortgage.
Any and all input is appreciated.
Thanks