According to the Rep, filing any CTR's after the DOEP has been filed automatically revokes the exemption.
Really?? I sure have never heard anything like this before. One accidental filing nullifies an exemption???? I find that hard to believe.
FIN-2012-G003
Question: If a bank ceases to treat a customer as exempt, and begins or intends to begin filing CTRs on that customer for the next reportable transaction, must the bank formally revoke the exemption by filing the DOEP report and selecting the "exemption revoked" box?
Answer: Banks have never been required to formally revoke an exemption using the DOEP report. Generally, examiners or other users of BSA data would be able to rely on a pattern of reporting to know that a customer is no longer being treated as exempt. For purposes of clarity or creating internal documentation, however, many banks voluntarily revoke exemptions using the DOEP report. For example, if during its annual review of an exempt non-listed business customer a bank discovers that the customer conducted no reportable transactions in the previous year, the bank could no longer treat that customer as exempt. If the exemption is not formally revoked using the DOEP report and the customer continues the pattern of not conducting reportable transactions, a law enforcement agent investigating the company would likely conclude incorrectly from the lack of CTR filings that the customer is still being treated as exempt. While revoking an exemption in such instances may benefit both the filing bank and users of BSA data, banks may choose to do so entirely on a voluntary basis.
You would think that if FinCEN thought that one filing of a CTR had the impact of revoking any previous exemption, they would have said so..........
1. ceases to treat a customer as exempt
and
2. begins or intends to begin filing CTRs
Sounds like a two prong test to me.
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