What avenues of recovery are there for an issuing bank where their customer is killed abroad, and fraudulent transactions are made by the perpetrator after the killing and subsequent theft? The killing occurred 26 days ago, and the transactions occurred the day of the killing and the following day.To make matters worse, the card used was a MasterCard debit card, and the perpetrator somehow obtained access to the PIN.
How much notice do we have to give the owner of a personal account of our intent to close her account?
May a Trustee of an irrevocable special needs trust have a debit card?
Why do we have to investigate all Reg E EFT claims?
When Reg E does apply, what kind of requirements can we place on the customer? Can we require that they file a police report or prove they have attempted contact with the merchant first?
How can we shorten the time limits in regards to a customer reporting a problem in for Reg E? Our card agreement requires provisional credit in five business days, so we want the customer to be forced to notify us sooner.
When I have fraud on an account, I send out fraud documents to the member and require they be signed and returned before we can get credit back. If the member never signs the documents and time expires to do this, does the credit union have any recourse for the member, can we charge it back to them legally or does the credit union have to take the loss? What should be done?
Does Regulation E require you to send dispute resolution letter with all information regarding the transaction, or can we send a generic letter? "Your claim is denied ,"or "your dispute is valid" with no information regarding the date and amount of the transaction? I was always under the impression you had to provide that information in a closure letter.
We discontinued offering prepaid cards a year ago. Customers can still use any previously purchased prepaid cards until the card expires or is cancelled. Customers can continue to reload their prepaid card but not through the bank. Is there any applicability for us regarding the new Prepaid Card Rule effective April 1, 2019, such as the error resolution provision for example?
Regarding the following question I read today, would it be okay for a bank to charge the overdraft fee if the customer HAD opted in - even though the
account had a positive balance when the transaction was approved? Or, does this fall in line with the UDAP statement from the agencies?
Can we charge an overdraft fee for a one-time debit card transaction that overdraws an account of a customer who has not opted-in if there were
sufficient funds at the time of authorization but not at the time the transaction posts?
No. The rule does not include any exceptions for card transactions that overdraw an account. The rule at its simplest is, "No opt-in, no overdraft